sounds like a ridiculous
question, but at its surface,
might we agree that,
statistically, as a base,
a scientific-ish formula
upon which we might
most assuredly find a
solid consensus, exists,
might be gleaned in order
to put such a statement to
test? does it not follow that,
given our numbers, at least
a subset of one exists within
the other? an equation
question, but at its surface,
might we agree that,
statistically, as a base,
a scientific-ish formula
upon which we might
most assuredly find a
solid consensus, exists,
might be gleaned in order
to put such a statement to
test? does it not follow that,
given our numbers, at least
a subset of one exists within
the other? an equation
built to generate
accurate numbers
would, of course, depend
significantly upon how we
define the words perv
define the words perv
and prude. and i’m no
scientist (despite my
credentials), but, personally,
i figure the statement holds
true for a vast majority. but
that’s just one guy’s opinion.
i’m interested in learning
what you think: do we
even need science?
what you think: do we
even need science?
